Objective Structured Clinical Assessment (OSCA) Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which components are included in a basic neurological examination for suspected stroke?
• Which statement about smoking-related complications is correct?
• What belongs to the Subjective portion of the SOAP note?
• Which finding on a routine abdominal exam is a red flag warranting urgent imaging?
• What is NOT part of the initial management of suspected acute pancreatitis?
• QID refers to dosing frequency of?
• In suspected stroke, what is the essential first step to determine eligibility for thrombolysis?
• What term describes high oxygen saturation?
• Which statement correctly describes what neurovascular observations assess for?
• Hemiparesis refers to which neurological deficit?
• What is the role of systemic steroids in a COPD or asthma exacerbation?
• What term describes a respiratory rate below 13 breaths per minute?
• In obtaining informed consent for a procedure, what are the key elements you must cover?
• Which ISBAR component would include the reason for admission?
• When documenting date and time in a progress note, which of the following formats is shown in the example?
• What is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious patient?
• How should antibiotic prescribing for community-acquired pneumonia balance efficacy and stewardship?
• How should you counsel adults about vaccines and contraindications in an OSCE?
• How would you communicate the plan of care to a patient with newly diagnosed diabetes?
• Which chest-pain presentation necessitates urgent imaging and ECG?
• What is the normal heart rate range?
• RIB stands for Rest in bed.
• In a pain assessment using the PQRST mnemonic, what does R stand for and what question would you ask?
• Which factor is considered a protective factor in a self-harm risk assessment?
• In suspected sepsis, which action is appropriate as an early management step?
• Which technique supports non-technical communication with a fearful patient?
• Outline a focused neurological exam that assesses consciousness and cranial nerves.
• In pediatric care, who provides informed consent, and who can give assent?
• Which imaging study assesses biliary obstruction in suspected acute pancreatitis?
• What is the normal body temperature range in Celsius?
• Hemiplegia refers to which neurological deficit?
• Which practice demonstrates safe injection technique?
• In a simulated OSCE, how should you assess suspected deep vein thrombosis?
• Which is the best approach to address a clinical error or near-miss in OSCE practice?
• Which information is important to collect in the vaccination history of pediatric patients?
• What is the standard sequence of steps for suturing a wound?
• Which of the following describes a stewardship-aligned approach to antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia?
• Which range represents the normal oxygen saturation (SpO2)?
• How should you document safeguarding concerns in a clinical encounter?
• Which approach is recommended when managing delirium in older adults during an OSCE?
• Which four elements comprise SBAR in patient handover?
• Which element should be documented to assess risk in suspected acute coronary syndrome?
• How should you document date and time in a progress note?
• What constitutes a basic airway assessment in an emergency OSCE scenario?
• Which term describes a brain event due to interrupted blood circulation?
• Hypotension is defined as:
• Which is a key element of safe prescribing in older adults to avoid polypharmacy risks?
• Apart from rate, what else is assessed when taking a pulse?
• What term describes a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute?
• Which of the following red flags in a headache history require urgent evaluation?
• Which option correctly defines hypoxia in SpO2 terms?
• For immediate management of anaphylaxis in a simulated station, which sequence is recommended?
• Which term describes low blood pressure?
• Why is urine output monitoring important in suspected AKI?
• How would you approach discussing prognosis and goals of care with a patient with advanced cancer?
• Which term denotes difficulty speaking?
• Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases causing optic nerve damage due to increased intraocular pressure.
• Which option is least essential when taking a focused history for acute abdominal pain?
• Which option represents the normal range of respiration rate for adults?
• Hypercholesterolemia describes high cholesterol levels in the blood.
• In ISBAR handover, what does the A represent?
• In a pain assessment, the W component stands for which word, and what question would you ask?
• What does the 'U' in PQRST stand for in pain assessment?
• When a medication safety recall affects a patient, which step should be taken first?
• What is the recommended initial action when you encounter a deteriorating patient in the ED?
• Which item is not typically considered an essential element when interpreting an ECG in an OSCE?
• Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is best described as?
• Tachycardia is defined as:
• ADLs stands for what?
• Which is part of the initial approach to suspected acute kidney injury in the OSCE setting?
• What is the initial management for a late-pregnancy patient presenting with heavy vaginal bleeding?
• In an ISBAR handover, what does the S represent?
• In ISBAR, what is described by the 'Situation' component?
• Which components are essential when assessing fall risk and mobility in older adults?
• What is the first-line treatment for suspected anaphylaxis?
• In COPD management with oxygen, which practice should be avoided to prevent hyperoxia?
• Which of the following is an example of the ISBAR 'Situation' component?
• Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus typically affects which group?
• What is the purpose of safety netting during discharge in OSCE practice?
• What is the most appropriate action when safeguarding concerns are detected in a clinical setting?
• Which statement best reflects the essential content when documenting informed consent?
• What factors are assessed in a self-harm risk assessment?
• Which cranial nerves are typically tested in a focused neurological exam as indicated by symptoms?
• In a patient with suspected COPD exacerbation, what is the recommended target SpO2?
• After performing sterile urinary catheterization, which documentation elements are essential?
• Which term describes high cholesterol levels in the blood and can lead to atherosclerosis?
• Which of the following is the essential initial assessment step in an elderly patient presenting with fever and confusion?
• Which statement about smoking is true?
• How would you approach suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient with leg swelling?
• Which history element helps differentiate cardiac syncope from vasovagal syncope?
• How should you introduce yourself and confirm the patient’s identity at the start of a consultation?
• What is the initial management for a conscious patient with diabetes experiencing hypoglycemia?
• Which of the following is required to assess capacity for medical decisions?
• Identify red flag in abdominal pain requiring urgent evaluation.
• In the SOAP note, what does the Assessment component include?
• In a focused history for suspected asthma/COPD exacerbation in an OSCE, which element is essential?
• Which statement about D-dimer testing in suspected pulmonary embolism is most accurate?
• Which ISBAR component may include reason for admission, medical history, and medications?
• Which option correctly reflects the action to take for an unconscious patient?
• Which safety check is essential before prescribing a high-risk medication?
• What is the first step when mediating potential interactions in a patient taking multiple medications?
• Which elements are included in a comprehensive wound depth assessment?
• What does OPQRST stand for, and how is it used in history taking?
• Which option best states the W, P and Q components in pain assessment?
• What is the correct technique for measuring blood pressure accurately?
• Which elements are essential in ECG interpretation for OSCEs?
• What do neurovascular (NV) observations assess for?
• Which information should be included in a clinical handover to ensure continuity of care?
• Which ISBAR component focuses on the current presenting event?
• Which question best elicits the quality of pain?
• In PQRST, what does T represent and what question would you ask?
• How is an anaphylactic reaction managed in an OSCE scenario?
• If blood glucose levels remain normal after initial hypoglycemia treatment and the patient is stable, which should be provided?
• What is the correct sequence for sterile skin preparation prior to wound suturing?
• Which of the following best describes consent for a minor procedure in an OSCE scenario?
• Which ISBAR component includes vital signs and current observations?
• Which of the following is a common component of depression management?
• Which option correctly defines bradycardia?
• Which sequence reflects early sepsis management?
• If capacity is in doubt, what action may be appropriate?
• Which test is included in the initial workup for suspected acute pancreatitis?
• Which statement best describes Alzheimer's disease?
• What is the immediate action after administering epinephrine in suspected anaphylaxis?
• Which statement best describes Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
• Which approach is recommended when a patient refuses a recommended treatment due to cultural beliefs?
• Which statement about clinical documentation improves safety?
• During sterile procedures, what is a key action to maintain sterility?
• In an ISBAR handover, what does the I represent?
• What considerations are important when involving family in pediatric care?
• Which finding is classically associated with acute pulmonary edema on examination?
• Temperature over 37.5 C is described as what?
• What is the recommended sequence of an abdominal examination, and why?
• How should you respond to a clinical error or near-miss in OSCE practice?
• When is debridement indicated in wound management?
• ADLs stands for which of the following?
• In ISBAR handovers, which component represents Background?
• In PQRST, what does S represent and what question would you ask?
• What would you do if you found your patient unconscious and unresponsive?
• In breaking bad news, which framework is commonly recommended to guide the conversation?
• Which infection is commonly associated with healthcare settings and is often antibiotic-resistant?
• Which term describes high oxygen saturation?
• In a pain assessment, the P component stands for which word, and what question would you ask?
• Which value falls within the normal SpO2 range (95–100%)?
• Cerebrovascular accident refers to which condition?
• In communicating with fearful patients, why is verifying understanding important?
• Which statement best describes succinct documentation of a clinical encounter?
• What are the key steps for performing simple skin suturing in an OSCE station?
• Prolonged hyperglycemia is associated with which complications?
• In an emergency scenario, which leadership action best supports patient safety?
• How should language barriers be managed during a clinical encounter?
• Which action is NOT typically included in a focused cardiovascular examination?
• Which sequence reflects the correct initial management for suspected sepsis in an OSCE scenario?
• Which statement correctly differentiates capacity from competence in patient decision-making?
• In symptomatic bradycardia, when is atropine indicated?
• Which of the following describes red flags in abdominal pain that indicate possible surgical disease?
• What is the normal respiratory rate range for adults in breaths per minute?
• BGL's refer to what medical measurement?
• Which pupil finding describes normal light response?
• Which components are important in patient education for long-term hypertension management?
• What is the recommended action if a sterile field is breached during a procedure?
• Which ISBAR component would include details such as visual assessment and observations?
• Which item should be included in discharge counseling for a patient starting a new antidepressant?
• After diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, the expected life expectancy is typically how many years?
• After suturing a wound, what is an essential step in wound care?
• How should prognosis be discussed with a patient who has a terminal illness?
• What is a common approach to triaging deteriorating patients in emergency settings?
• In wound care, when is clean technique appropriate and when is sterile technique required?
• A wound that penetrates through the full dermis and into underlying tissues is classified as?
• Which question best elicits the provoking aspect of pain?
• In a COPD exacerbation, why should oxygen be titrated to a target saturation rather than 100%?
• How do you perform sterile urinary catheterization and minimize infection risk?
• What is the primary purpose of safety-netting in primary care?
• What does # mean in a medical chart?
• Which step is essential to ensure safe handover from hospital to community?
• What is the normal systolic blood pressure range?
• In suspected meningitis, what should be obtained prior to administering antibiotics if possible?
• In the emergency management of symptomatic bradycardia, which is an appropriate first step?
• What is the key approach to discussing goals of care with a patient who wishes to participate in shared decision making?
• Which sequence reflects initial management for a COPD or asthma exacerbation in the emergency department?
• Which term describes difficulty swallowing?
• What is the purpose of safety-netting in primary care, and what should it include?
• What are the steps of a brief smoking cessation intervention?
• What do neurological (NL) observations assess for?
• What is a core principle of antibiotic stewardship in OSCE contexts?
• Which items constitute the core principles of infection prevention in clinical practice?
• In suspected pulmonary embolism, which statement best describes initial management?
• Temperature under 37.5 C is described as what?
• In suspected ischemic stroke, which imaging is essential first-line to exclude hemorrhage before thrombolysis?
• What is an appropriate method to assess pain in non-verbal or cognitively impaired patients?
• What are the steps involved in wound dressing and dressing changes for a clean wound?
• In taking a structured history for suspected GI bleeding, which element is essential?
• Differentiate subjective and objective data in patient assessment.
• Bradycardia is defined as:
• What does NOF stand for in a medical chart?
• Which ISBAR component would include actions such as TL has been notified?
• Which tool is used to assess the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
• Which signs would you assess to evaluate for heart failure during a cardiovascular examination?
• In PQRST, what does U represent and what question would you ask?
• What is a best-practice approach when communicating a new test result to a patient?
• Which ECG finding indicates STEMI?
• Which statement best reflects initial management steps for suspected sepsis?
• What is the normal diastolic blood pressure range?
• What elements should be included in history-taking for suspected acute coronary syndrome during an OSCE?
• What is the initial management step in a patient with fever and neck stiffness suspected of meningitis?
• In a simulated code, which leadership behavior most supports patient safety?
• Which steps maintain sterile technique during a minor wound dressing?
• Which finding would prompt urgent review in a patient with hypertension?
• Which statement about safeguarding documentation is correct?
• Which statement best describes Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
• In suspected sepsis, within how long should broad-spectrum antibiotics be started if possible?
• In the SOAP note, what does the Plan component include?
• What are essential components of a structured cardiovascular examination?
• Hypertension is defined as:
• Tachycardia is defined as:
• In ISBAR handover, what does the R represent?
• During a respiratory distress assessment, which objective parameter is commonly checked to assess gas exchange?
• What is the purpose of cross-matching blood in obstetric emergencies?
• Which social factor should be considered in the history of a patient with suspected respiratory distress?
• Which step in SPIKES involves showing empathy and addressing emotions?
• Which ISBAR component includes vital signs and pain assessment?
• Which components make up the standard SOAP note structure used to document a patient encounter?
• How would you demonstrate proper venipuncture technique for blood sampling?
• Which action best reduces polypharmacy risks in older adults?
• In suspected DVT while awaiting imaging, which action constitutes the initial management plan?
• In assessing medication safety and allergies for a new patient, which approach is essential?
• QID stands for which dosing frequency?
• Which SpO2 value indicates hypoxia?
• What is the correct order of the SPIKES framework steps?
• What is the lifetime risk of developing glaucoma for Australians?
• How do you recognize safeguarding concerns in adults or children and what is your immediate action?
• In an OSCE station for acute chest pain, what is the first priority?
• UTI is an acronym for which condition?
• Which element is essential in infection prevention during invasive procedures?
• List key steps to assess the respiratory system for distress.
• Which statement best defines patient capacity in informed consent?
• Which elements are essential in obtaining a focused history for a patient presenting with acute shortness of breath?
• In a pain assessment, the Q component stands for which word, and what question would you ask?
• How would you break bad news empathetically in an OSCE scenario?
• Which element is important to include in discharge communication for safe handover?
• If you find a patient unconscious, which immediate actions are indicated?